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General Banking Officer Solved Sample Question Paper: Reasoning<-- Click for Details

Published: December 16th, 2009

Directions (Q 1–5): In each of the letter series, find the missing letters.
1. a – c c a b c – a b – c – b c c
1. b a c c
2. b c c a
3. c b c a
4. c c b a
5. c a b c
2. b b c – b – c a b b – a – b c a
1. b c a b
2. a c b b
3. a b c b
4. c a b b
5. a d b c
3. x x – y – x x x x y – x x x x y – x
1. y x y y
2. y x x x
3. x y x x
4. x y y y
5. x x x y
4. a a – c – a b c a – b c a a b –
1. c a a b
2. a a c b
3. b a a c
4. b a c a
5. None of these
5. c c b – c – b a c c – a – c b a
1. b c a c
2. a b c c
3. c c b a
4. a c b c
5. None of these
6. A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father and E is D’s mother. What is the relationship of A with E?
1. Daughter
2. Grand daughter
3. Grandson
4. Grandmother
5. Sister
7. If yesterday’s tomorrow was Wednesday, then yesterday’s day-after-tomorrow will be
1. Wednesday
2. Thursday
3. Friday
4. Saturday
5. Sunday
8. Which of the following groups of letters is different from the other groups of letters?
1. FETE
2. GAME
3. HUGE
4. LOVE
5. SMALL
9. Which of the following series is without any law/pattern?
1. FHKOT
2. CEHLP
3. IKNRW
4. LNQUZ
5. INTKR
10. In a row of the six members sitting, P is sitting to the left of Q but to the right of Y. R is sitting to the right of X but to the left of Q who is to the left of Z. The members sitting in the middle are
1. PR
2. RQ
3. XQ
4. PS
5. None of these
11. Select an item from those given in alternatives that has the same property as the one in question
697, 888, 945
1. 146
2. 934
3. 879
4. 555
5. 584
12. Find the missing term in the series BYAZ, ? , DWCX, EVDW
1. AXBY
2. CXBY
3. AZDW
4. CYBX
5. CDBY
13. Find the missing term in the series CEHLQ, FHKOT, ?, LNQUZ
1. GILPU
2. JLOSX
3. IKMQV
4. IKNRW
5. LKMST
14. A boat is going against the stream in a river and it first turns to exact right and then again a second time exactly to the right to its direction of motion. Assuming that the boat is propelled at constant velocity from the start, how will the speed be effected now?
1. Will increase or decrease
2. Will remain the same
3. Will increase
4. Will decrease
5. None of these
15. Select an item from those given as alternatives that has the same property as the one in question. 914, 703, 813
1. 611
2. 789
3. 870
4. 120
5. 154
Directions (Q 16–23): Find out the next term in the given series:
16. 9, 12, 21, 48, ?
1. 69
2. 84
3. 102
4. 129
5. 125
17. 95, 115.5, 138, ?
1. 162.5
2. 163.5
3. 164.5
4. 167.5
5. 125.5
18. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, ?
1. 21
2. 23
3. 25
4. 29
5. 24
19. 563, 647, 479, 815, ?
1. 143
2. 279
3. 386
4. 672
5. 786
20. 79, 68, 57, 46, ?
1. 17
2. 27
3. 35
4. 66
5. 65
21. 5, 1/5, 17, 1/17, 29, 1/29, ?
1. 34
2. 39
3. 41
4. 49
5. 40
22. 18, 27, 6, 9, 2, 3, ?
1. 1
2. 1/3
3. 2/3
4. 1/2
5. 1/4
23. 4, 2, 8, 4, 24, 12, 96, ?
1. 24
2. 36
3. 40
4. 48
5. 50
Directions (Q 24–30): Which one is different from others?
24. Calf, Colt, Puppy, Cat, Cub
1. Calf
2. Colt
3. Puppy
4. Cat
5. Cub
25. Ox, Peacock, Lion, Hen, Tiger
1. Lion
2. Ox
3. Peacock
4. Hen
5. Tiger
26. Copper, Diamond, Silver, Gold, Platinum
1. Diamond
2. Gold
3. Silver
4. Copper
5. Platinum
27. Diet, Died, Tied, Tide, Fried
1. Tide
2. Diet
3. Tied
4. Died
5. Fried
28. 16, 22, 30, 45, 52, 66
1. 30
2. 45
3. 52
4. 66
5. 16
29. 8754, 9786, 7986, 3243, 1245
1. 8754
2. 9786
3. 7986
4. 3243
5. 1245
30. 1622, 2540, 3840, 5786, 5453
1. 5786
2. 3840
3. 2540
4. 1622
5. 5453
Answers
1. 2, 2. 3, 3. 4, 4. 3, 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 2, 8. 1, 9. 2, 10. 4
11. 2, 12. 2, 13. 4, 14. 3, 15. 1, 16. 4, 17. 1, 18. 2, 19. 1, 20. 3
21. 3, 22. 3, 23. 4, 24. 4, 25. 4, 26. 1, 27. 1, 28. 2, 29. 3, 30. 1

Tags: 4 Ps, Day After Tomorrow, Directions, Fete, Game, Grand Daughter, Grandmother, Love, Missing Letters, Question Paper, Relationship, Sample Question, Second Time, Sister 7, Sister C, Xq
Posted in Sample Job Test Papers | No Comments »

National Agriculture Bank Reasoning Ability Model paper | National Agricultural Exam Reasoning Ability Sample paper | National Agriculture Bank PO Exam – Reasoning Ability Question Paper<-- Click for Details

Published: November 27th, 2009

National Agriculture Bank Reasoning Ability Model paper | National Agricultural Exam Reasoning Ability Sample paper | National Agriculture Bank PO Exam – Reasoning Ability Question Paper

Reasoning Ability:

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below it—
Seven professionals A, B, C, D, E, F and G are practicing their professions in different cities Chennai, Banglore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different profession Doctor, Engineer, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Counsellor, Professor and Artist not necessarily in the same order.
A is a Pharmacist and practises in Bhubaneshwar. D practises in Banglore but is not a Doctor or an Artist. The one who practises in Hyderabad is a Professor. G is a
Counsellor and does not practise in Mumbai or Chennai. E is a Lawyer and practises in Ahmedabad. F practises in Chennai but is not an artist. C practises in Mumbai.
26. What is D’s profession ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Professor
(C) Engineer
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
27. Who is the professor ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following combinations of profession and place is correct ?
(A) Pharmacist—Jaipur
(B) Engineer—Chennai
(C) Doctor—Bangalore
(D) Artist—Mumbai
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following persons work in Jaipur ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) C
(D) B or G
(E) None of these
30. Who is the Doctor ?
(A) D
(B) B
(C) C
(D) B or C
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer :
(A) If only I follows.
(B) If only II follows.
(C) If either I or II follows.
(D) If neither I nor II follows.
(E) If both I and II follow.
31. Statement : Cases of road accidents are increasing constantly, particularly in the urban areas.
Courses of action :
I. Transport Authorities in the urban areas should impose stringent norms for maintenance of vehicles.
II. Traffic police should severely punish those found to be violating traffic rules.
32. Statement : Despite good economic progress of the country, significant number of undernourished children has been observed in the rural parts of the country.
Courses of action :
I. Government should increase Wealth Tax/Income Tax and use that money for upliftment of the deprived class.
II. Govt. should introduce schemes like free meals in primary schools and make primary education compulsory.
33. Statement : Launching of new brands of four wheelers is adding to the traffic congestion in the metro cities.
Courses of action :
I. Public should be encouraged to share their private vehicles while travelling to their work places.
II. Govt. should levy heavy taxes on motor cars in metro cities.
34. Statement : Increasing levels of air-pollution is creating healthhazards for people living in the cities.
Courses of action :
I. All industries should be shifted to the outskirts of the cities.
II. Transport Authorities should take steps for converting all public transport vehicles to run on CNG.
35. Statement : Large number of college students are found to be focusing more on fashion than on studies.
Courses of action :
I. Colleges should impose restrictions on use of fashionable clothes and accessories.
II. Colleges should keep the students busy enough with studies, so that they don’t find time for other things like fashion.
Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes
or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer :
(A) If statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
(B) If statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
(C) If both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
36. (A) Parents in the locality decided to stop sending their children to school by privatevehicles.
(B) A major accident of a private van carrying school children lead to deaths of few and injuries for many children.
37. (A) The city observed lowest temperature of the last decade accompanied by heavy fog during the week.
(B) Most of the flights from the city were indefinitely delayed causing panic among the passengers.
38. (A) In the past few years the job market has improved for the professionally qualified youth.
(B) Many youth are not able to get jobs upto their expectations.
39. (A) During peak hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing traffic jams in most parts of the city.
(B) Many companies are planning to launch low priced vehicles.
40. (A) During evening hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing very slow movement of vehicles.
(B) Pollution level in the air has substantially increased in the recent past.
Answers from 25 to 40 are as follows,
25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D)29. (B) 30. (E) 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (E) 35. (E) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (D)

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Tags: Administrative Decision, Bangalore, Combinations, Directions, Engineer, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lawyer, Model Paper, National Agriculture, National Bank, Paper Model, Pharmacist, Profession, Professions, Professor C, Question Paper, Reasoning Ability, Regard
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Bank Clerk Numerical Ability<-- Click for Details

Published: November 10th, 2009

Directions (51-75): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?

51. 832.456-539.982-123.321=?
(1) 196.153
(2) 149.153
(3) 169.153
(4) 176.135
(5) None of these
52. ? x 19 = 7828
(1) 411
(2) 412
(3) 413
(4) 414
(5) 415
53. 236.69+356.74 = 393.39 + ?
(1) 200.04
(2) 201.04
(3) 200.14
(4) 202.14
(5) 203.04
54. 734 / ? = 91.75
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10
(5) None of these
55. x (35 x 15 x 10) / (25 x 2) = ?
(1) 105
(2) 115
(3) 70
(4) 35
(5) None of these
56. 5938+4456+2891 = ?
(1) 15255
(2) 14285
(3) 13285
(4) 12385
(5) None of these
57. 859.05 + 428.89+663.17=?
(1) 1585.91
(2) 1286.94
(3) 1950.02
(4) 1950.11
(5) 1951.01
58. 434 x 645=?
(1) 27840
(2) 297930
(3) 279903
(4) 279930
(5) None of these
59. 7 x ? =29.05
(1) 4.05
(2) 4.15
(3) 3.95
(4) 4.28
(5) None of these
60. 725 / 25 - 13 = ?
(1) 16
(2) 29
(3) 12
(4) 18
(5) None of these
61. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?
(1) 314
(2) 313
(3) 312
(4) 311
(5) None of these
62. 806 / 26 =?
(1) 30
(2) 32
(3) 34
(4) 36
(5) None of these
63. 559 + 995 = ? x 16
(1) 92.05
(2) 95.25
(3) 93.15
(4) 94.35
(5) None of these
64. ((337 +146) x 8)=?
(1) 3884
(2) 1515
(3) 3864
(4) 1505
(5) 3846
65. $7\frac{3}{4}+5\frac{1}{4}+8\frac{1}{2}=?$
(1) $20\frac{1}{4}$
(2) $21\frac{1}{2}$
(3) $21\frac{3}{4}$
(4) $21\frac{3}{4}$
(5) $20\frac{3}{4}$
66. 4758-2782-1430=?
(1) 356
(2) 396
(3) 486
(4) 546
(5) None of these
67. 9.1 x 7.5 x 6.2 =?
(1) 423.25
(2) 68.25
(3) 593.775
(4) 472.5
(5) None of these
68. $\sqrt{441}+\sqrt{676}=?$
(1) 43
(2) 45
(3) 47
(4) 49
(5) 51
69. $49+\sqrt{?}=87$
(1) 1444
(2) 1442
(3) 1448
(4) 1456
(5) 1460
70. $\frac{{{(8)}^{2}}+164+4}{14}=?$
(1) 25
(2) 64
(3) 8
(4) 7.5
(5) None of these
71. 248 of $\frac{7}{8}$ +110 of 20% = ?
(1) 192
(2) 202
(3) 212
(4) 239
(5) 242
72. $\frac{2}{5}+\frac{10}{13}+\frac{7}{13}=?$
(1) $2\frac{23}{65}$
(2) $1\frac{46}{65}$
(3) $2\frac{10}{13}$
(4) $\frac{46}{65}$
(5) $1\frac{10}{13}$
73. $\sqrt{?}-17=22$
(1) 1511
(2) 1531
(3) 1515
(4) 1553
(5) 1521
74. 484 of $\frac{3}{4}$ + 366 of $\frac{5}{6}$ = ?
(1) 663
(2) 844
(3) 668
(4) 848
(5) 666
75. 280% of 460 =?
(1) 1188
(2) 1284
(3) 1288
(4) 1280
(5) None of these
76. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?
(1) 118 x 13+209 x 42
(2) 174 x 10+222 x 19
(3) 173 x 12+221 x 24
(4) 169 x 16+167 x 50
(5) None of these
77. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?
(1) Rs. 3.377
(2) Rs. 4.473
(3) Rs. 4.377
(4) Rs. 4.743
(5) Rs. 4.347
78. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance covered by the bus?
(1) 343 km
(2) 283 km
(3) 353 km
(4) 245 km
(5) 340 km
79. $\frac{1}{4}$ th of $\frac{2}{5}$ th of a number is 82. What is the number?
(1) 410
(2) 820
(3) 420
(4) 220
(5) None of these
80. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?
(1) 20
(2) 21
(3) 22
(4) 23
(5) None of these
81. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three?
(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 13
(4) 16
(5) None of these
82. Find the average of the following set of scores:
118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229
(1) 148
(2) 152
(3) 156
(4) 160
(5) 175
83. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of bananas and 3 dozen of apples?
(1) Rs. 216
(2) Rs.108
(3) Rs. 189
(4) Rs. 225
(5) Rs. 162
84. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?
(1) 43
(2) 48
(3) 55
(4) 53
(5) 62
85. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?
(1) 59
(2) 58
(3) 57
(4) 56
(5) None of these
86. What is 184 times 156?
(1) 28704
(2) 29704
(3) 30604
(4) 27604
(5) None of these
87. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
5989 $\div$ 48 11=?
(1) 1375
(2) 1370
(3) 1372
(4) 1368
(5) 1365
88. If an amount of Rs. 15,487 is divided equally among 76 students, approximately how much amount will each student get?
(1) Rs. 206
(2) Rs. 210
(3) Rs. 204
(4) Rs. 218
(5) Rs. 212
89. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
6417 5704 4991 4278 3565 2852 ?
(1) 2408
(2) 2426
(3) 7310
(4) 7130
(5) 2139
90. Rinku and Pooja started a business initially with Rs. 5,100 and Rs. 6,600 respectively. If the total profit is Rs. 2.730 what is Rinku’s share in the profit?
(1) Rs. 1,530
(2) Rs. 1,540
(3) Rs. 1,200
(4) Rs. 1,180
(5) None of these
91. 25% of the total cost of a plot of area 280 sq. feet is Rs. 1,32,370. What is the rate per sq. ft. of the plot?
(1) Rs. 2,091
(2) Rs. 1,981
(3) Rs. 1,991
(4) Rs. 1,891
(5) None of these
92. If the difference between a number and one fifth of it is 84, what is the number?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 105
(4) 108
(5) 112
93. The respective ratio of the ages of Richa and Shelly is 5: 8. The ratio of their ages 10 years hence would be 7: 10 respectively. What is the present age of Shelly?
(1) 45 years
(2) 40 years
(3) 35 years
(4) 30 years
(5) 25 years
94. A student scores 64% marks in 6 papers of 150 marks each. He scores 25% of his total obtained marks in Hindi and English together. How much is his total score for both these papers?
(1) 120
(2) 124
(3) 140
(4) 144
(5) 150
95. When the original price of toy was increased by 25%, the price of one dozen toys was Rs. 300. What was the original price of one toy?
(1) Rs. 24
(2) Rs. 29
(3) Rs. 30
(4) Rs. 15
(5) Rs. 20
96. If 3x + 5y = 44 and 10x -2y = 16, what is the value of x?
(1) 7
(2) 3
(3) 5.5
(4) 6.5
(5) None of these
97. 15 persons complete a job in 3 days. How many days will 10 persons take to complete the same job?
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) $2\frac{2}{3}$
(4) $3\frac{1}{4}$
(5) $4\frac{1}{2}$
98. The owner of an electronics shop charges his customer 25% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs. 11,500 for a television set, then what was the cost price of the television set?
(1) Rs. 9,200
(2) Rs. 7,200
(3) Rs. 8,600
(4) Rs. 9,800
(5) Rs. 10,000
99. Sumit obtained a total of 1012 marks out of 1150 in an examination. What is his percentage in the examination?
(1) 86
(2) 88
(3) 84
(4) 90
(5) None of these
100. What should replace both the question marks in the following equation?
$\frac{?}{84}=\frac{189}{?}$
(1) 126
(2) 124
(3) 130
(4) 132
(5) 136
ANSWERS
51. (3), 52. (2), 53. (1), 54. (1), 55. (1), 56. (3), 57. (4), 58. (4), 59. (2), 60. (1)
61. (5), 62. (5), 63. (2), 64. (3), 65. (2), 66. (4), 67. (1), 68. (3), 69. (1), 70. (4)
71. (4), 72. (2), 73. (5), 74. (3), 75. (3), 76. (3), 77. (4), 78. (1), 79. (2), 80. (2)
81. (5), 82. (5), 83. (1), 84. (4), 85. (4), 86. (1), 87. (3), 88. (3), 89. (5), 90. (5)
91. (4), 92. (3), 93. (2), 94. (4), 95. (5), 96. (2), 97. (5), 98. (1), 99. (2), 100. (1)

Tags: 192, 411, Bank Clerk, Directions, Nbsp, Question Mark
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CAT Sample Questions<-- Click for Details

Published: November 10th, 2009

CAT Sample Questions

Analytical Reasoning Sample Questions

Directions :All CAT sample analytical resoning questions are based on a passage or set of conditions. While answering a few of the questions, you would find it useful to draw a rough diagram. To answer any CAT sample analytical reasoning question choose the answer you think is most appropriate among the given options.
Questions 1- 3
Three men (Tom, Peter and Jack) and three women (Eliza, Anne and Karen) are spending a few months at a hillside. They are to stay in a row of nine cottages, each one living in his or her owncottage. There are no others staying in the same row of houses.

Anne, Tom and Jack do not want to stay in any cottage, which is at the end of the row.
Eliza and Anne are unwilling to stay besides any occupied cottage..
Karen is next to Peter and Jack.
Between Anne and Jack’s cottage there is just one vacant house.
None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages.
The house occupied by Tom is next to an end cottage.

Which of the above statements can be said to have been derived from two other statements ?
1. Statement 1
2. Statement 2
3. Statement 3
4. Statement 5
5. Statement 6
Ans : D
How many of them occupy cottages next to a vacant cottage ?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6
Ans : C
Which among these statement(s) are true ?
1. Anne is between Eliza and Jack.
2. At the most four persons can have occupied cottages on either side of them. .
3. Tom stays besides Peter.
1. I only
2. II only
3. I and III only
4. II and III only
5. I, II and III
Ans : C

Questions 4 - 7
An employee has been assigned the task of allotting offices to six of the staff members. The offices are numbered 1 - 6. The offices are arranged in a row and they are separated from each other by six foot high dividers. Hence voices, sounds and cigarette smoke flow easily from one office to another.
Miss Robert’s needs to use the telephone quite often throughout the day. Mr. Mike and Mr. Brown need adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often while working. Miss. Hardy, is a senior employee and has to be allotted the office number 5, having the biggest window. .
Mr. Donald requires silence in the offices next to his. Mr. Tim, Mr. Mike and Mr. Donald are all smokers. Miss Hardy finds tobacco smoke allergic and consecutively the offices next to hers to be occupied by non-smokers.
Unless specifically stated all the employees maintain an atmosphere of silence during office hours.

The ideal candidate to occupy the office furthest from Mr. Brown would be
1. Miss Hardy
2. Mr. Mike
3. Mr. Tim
4. Mr. Donald
5. Mr. Robert
Ans : D
The three employees who are smokers should be seated in the offices.
1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 2, 3 and 6
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3
5. 1, 2 and 6
Ans : D
The ideal office for Mr. Mike would be.
1. 2
2. 6
3. 1
4. 3
5. 4
Ans : D
In the event of what occurrence, within a period of one month since the assignment of the offices, would a request for a change in office be put forth by one or more employees ?
1. Mr. Donald quitting smoking.
2. The installation of a noisy teletype machine by Miss Hardy in her office.
3. Mr. Robert’s needing silence in the office (s) next to her own. .
4. Mr. Brown suffering from laryngitis.
5. Mr. Tim taking over the duties formerly taken care of by Miss. Robert. .
Ans : E

Questions 8 - 10
In an experiment conducted at a laboratory, 160 white mice were injected with Serum D. 160 other white mice were injected with a harmless sugar solution .In two weeks time 39% of the white mice, who were injected with Serum D contracted the highly contagious and often fatal disease, jungle fever. Hence, it can be concluded that jungle fever is caused by some elements similar to the elements in Serum D.

The above discussion would be weakened most severely in case it is shown that
1. People contracting jungle fever are usually the victims of the bite of the South American Lesser Hooded Viper.
2. One among the 160 white mice had already contracted jungle fever prior to the laboratory experiment.
3. The natural habitats of white mice does not contain any of the elements found in Serum D.
4. The scientists administered the injections being ignorant of the contents of the solutions used.
5. The 160 white mice used in the laboratory experiment were kept isolated from each other.
Ans : B
The above argument would be highly empowered in case it were shown that:
1. Some of the elements in Serum D are extracted from the root of a certain poisonous jungle wildflower.
2. Within a period of two weeks about 40% of the white mice, who were injected with a harmless sugar solution also contracted jungle fever.
3. Almost all the white mice died within a period of two days after the first symptoms appeared.
4. Normally the rate of jungle fever among white mice is less than 0.01%.
5. Invariably the blood of the victims of jungle fever victims contains a high level of a certain toxic substance also found in serum D.
Ans : E
Distribution of leaflets and delivering speeches on government property should be outlawed. Radicals and fanatics have no right to use public property when peddling their unsavory views.The argument above is based on the postulate
1. The general public has a special concern in the free exchange of different political views.
2. Radicals and fanatics prefer the use of public property while propagating their viewpoint.
3. Every person who hands out leaflets and delivers speeches is a radical or fanatic.
4. Legal constraints which are applicable to one group need not be equally applicable to all.
5. Any political activity, which hinders the proper functioning of the government should not be protected by the law.
Ans : C

Questions 11 - 12
Successfully adjusting to one’s environment leads to happiness. War at a universal level war destroys the weaker people, who are the most unable to adjust to their environment. Thus, war at the universal level puts weaklings out of their misery and allows more space for their predators to enjoy life in a better manner. As those actions have to be performed, which maximize the level of happiness of the greatest number, war at a universal level should take place.

What response would the author of the above discussion come up with, in the case of the objection that the weaklings far exceed strong people?
1. He would respond with the statement that the person making the objection is a weakling.
2. He would respond by saying that weaklings will be miserable no matter what happens.
3. He would respond with the statement that the strong would be frustrated if the weaklings are destroyed.
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II only
5. II and III only
Ans : E
The author’s discussion would be greatly if he agreed to which of the following?
1. Technology could change the environment.
2. War at the universal level would be an integral part of the environment.
3. It is possible for the strong to survive without suppressing the weak.
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and III only
5. I, II and III only
Ans : A
Questions 13 - 15
Come back with us to the real America leaving behind the turmoil of civilization. The real America is still inhabited by the eagle, the buffalo, the mountain lion and elk; it is still spacious, sprawling and majestic. Experience the freedom and serenity still to be found in
1. Choose the best option to complete the above statement:
  1. the natural beauty of our land
  2. the fascinating urban centers
  3. the wild terrain of Africa
  4. one’s own subconscious
  5. the great sprawling cities of the Southwest
  Ans : A
2. The above paragraph is most likely to appear in which of the following?
  1. A Hunter’s Guide to The United States
  2. Exploring the Great Outdoors
  3. The Quiet Beauty of Alaska
  4. How the Eagle Became Extinct
  5. Returning to America
  Ans : D
3. When I am elected, I will work towards effecting those changes for which I have been fighting all these years. We will work together to do away with the bureaucratic bogs which have existed ever since my opponent took office. Everyone of you knows what I stand for; I invite my opponent to …For completion of the above statement choose the best option:
  1. hand in his resignation graciously
  2. make his stance clear
  3. stop lying to the public
  4. get our city more federal aid
  5. extend his support to me
  Ans : B
4. We can never make our beliefs regarding the world certain. Even scientific theory of a most rigorous and well-confirmed nature is likely to change over a decade or even tomorrow. If we refuse to even try to understand, then it is like resigning from the human race. Undoubtedly life of an unexamined kind is worth living in other respects–as it is no mean thing to be a vegetable or an animal. It is also true that a man wishes to see this speculative domain beyond his next dinner.From the above passage it is clear that the author believes that
  1. men would not do well to speculate
  2. progress in the scientific field is impossible
  3. one should live life with the dictum ‘what will be will be’
  4. men should ignore their animal needs
  5. men are different from animals as far as their reasoning abilities are concerned.
  Ans : E
Questions 17-21
Two or more essences out of a stock of five essences– L, M, N, O, and P are used in making all perfumes by a manufacturer. He has learned that for a blend of essences to be agreeable it should comply with all the rules listed below.
A perfume containing L, should also contain the essence N, and the quantity of N should be twice as that of L.
A perfume containing M, must also have O as one of its components and they should be in equal proportion.
A single perfume should never contain N as well as O.
O and P should not be used together.
A perfume containing the essence P should contain P in such a proportion that the total amount of P present should be greater than the total amount of the other essence or essences used.
1. Among the following which is an agreeable formula for a perfume?
  1. One part L, one part P
  2. Two parts M, two parts L
  3. Three parts N, three parts L
  4. Four parts O, four parts M
  5. Five parts P, five parts M
  Ans : D
2. Adding more amount of essence N will make which of the following perfumes agreeable?
  1. One part L, one part N, five parts P
  2. Two parts M, two parts N, two parts P
  3. One part M, one part N, one part P
  4. Two parts M, one part N, four parts P
  5. Two parts N, one part O, three parts P
  Ans : A
3. Among the following, the addition of which combination would make an unagreeable perfume containing two parts N and one part P agreeable?
  Ans : E
4. Among the following which combination cannot be used together in an agreeable perfume containing two or more essences?
  1. L and M
  2. L and N
  3. L and P
  4. M and O
  5. P and N
  Ans : A
5. Among the below mentioned formulas, which can be made agreeable by the eliminating some or all of one essence ?
  1. One part L, one part M, one part N, four parts P
  2. One part L, two parts N, one part O, four parts P
  3. One part L, one part M, one part O, one part P
  4. Two parts L, two parts N, one part O, two parts P
  5. Two parts M, one part N, two parts O, three parts P
  Ans : B
1. Everything that a person does, which is dictated by reason of ignorance is not voluntary. Involuntary actions are those which produce pain and repentance. Incase a man has done something in his ignorance and he does not feel vexed due to his action, he has not acted voluntarily as he was not aware of what he was doing, nor yet involuntarily since he is not pained.After reading this passage we can arrive at the conclusion that:
  1. A person is not a voluntary agent, if he acts by reason of ignorance and repents. .
  2. If an action is done by reason of ignorance and is not voluntary , then it was repented.
  3. A man is an involuntary agent, if he acts by reason of ignorance.
  4. Some actions are either involuntary or not voluntary.
  5. If a man is not a voluntary agent, then he acted by reason of ignorance and repents.
  Ans : A
2. Everything that God knows necessarily is, because even what we ourselves know necessarily is; and, of course, our knowledge is not as certain as God’s knowledge is. But no future contingent thing necessarily is..Among the following statements, which naturally follows from the above:
  1. There are no future contingent things.
  2. It is not true that God has knowledge of only necessary things.
  3. God has knowledge of no contingent future things.
  4. It is not possible for us to know God.
  5. God has knowledge of everything. .
  Ans : C
Questions 24 - 25
Some lawyers are of the view that the observation of the intrinsic qualities of pornography in any composition depends on literary criticism and hence it is a matter of opinion. It is rather odd, though, that in a legal connection, serious critics themselves quite often behave as if they believed criticism to be a matter of opinion. Why be a critic - and teach in universities - in case criticism involves nothing but uttering capricious and arbitrary opinions ?
1. In the above argument the author is trying to establish that
  1. whether a composition can be called pornographic or not is a matter of opinion. .
  2. it is not a matter of opinion whether a work is pornographic.
  3. observance of the qualities of pornography is not dependent on literary criticism.
  4. critics seem hypocritical.
  5. critics should not teach at universities.
  Ans : D
2. The above discussion would be weakened if it is pointed out that:
  1. literary critics are of the opinion that nothing is pornographic.
  2. lawyers believe that the observance of the qualities of pornography is a matter of opinion, as literary critics are not in agreement in this regard.
  3. literary critics are not legal authorities.
  4. literary critics should not concern themselves with deciding what is pornographic.
  5. literary critics in the teaching profession at the university level are init only for the money.
  Ans : BQuestions 26 - 31
3. Nine individuals - Z, Y, X, W, V, U, T, S and R - are the only candidates, who can serve on three committees– A, B and C, and each candidate should serve on exactly one of the committees.
4. Committee A should consist of exactly one member more than committee B.
  It is possible that there are no members of committee C.
  Among Z, Y and X none can serve on committee A.
  Among W, V and U none can serve on committee G.
  Among T, S and R none can serve on committee C.
  1. In case T and Z are the individuals serving on committee B, how many of the nine individuals should serve on committee C?
    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 5
    4. 6
    5. 7
    Ans : B
  2. Of the nine individuals, the largest number that can serve together on committee C is
    1. 9
    2. 8
    3. 7
    4. 6
    5. 5
    Ans : D
  3. In case R is the only individual serving on committee B, which among the following should serve on committee A?
    1. W and S
    2. V and U
    3. V and T
    4. U and S
    5. T and S
    Ans : E
  4. In case any of the nine individuals serves on committee C, which among the following should be the candidate to serve on committee A?
    1. Z
    2. Y
    3. W
    4. T
    5. S
    Ans : C
  5. In case T, S and X are the only individuals serving on committee B, the total membership of committee C should be:
    1. Z and Y
    2. Z and W
    3. Y and V
    4. Y and U
    5. X and V
    Ans : A
  6. Among the following combinations which could constitute the membership of committee C?
    1. Y and T
    2. X and U
    3. Y, X and W
    4. W, V and U
    5. Z, X, U and R
    Ans : B
    Questions 32 - 34
    (M, N, O and P are all different individuals)
    1. M is the daughter of N.
    2. N is the son of O
    3. O is the father of P.
    1. Among the following statements, which is true ?
      1. O is the uncle of M.
      2. P and N are brothers
      3. M is the daughter of P.
      4. If B is the daughter of N, then M and B are sisters.
      5. If C is the granddaughter of O, then C and M are sisters.
      Ans : D
    2. Which among the following statements is contradictory to the above premises?
      1. P is the father of M.
      2. O has three children.
      3. M has one brother.
      4. M is the granddaughter of O.
      5. Another party C, could be the mother of M.
      Ans : A
    3. If B is the son of N and B has one brother, D, then
      1. M is the sister of D.
      2. D and N are brothers.
      3. O is the grandfather of D.
      1. I only
      2. II only
      3. III only
      4. I and III only
      5. I and II only
      Ans : D
    Questions 35 - 41
    The only people to attend a conference were four ship captains and the first mates of three of those captains. The captains were L, M, N and O; the first mates were A, D and G. Each person in turn delivered a report to the assembly as follows:
    Each of the first mates delivered their report exactly after his or her captain. The first captain to speak was M, and captain N spoke after him.
    1. Among the following which is not an appropriate order of delivered reports?
      1. M, A, N, G, O, L, D
      2. M, D, N, G, L, O, A
      3. M, N, A, L, D, O, G
      4. M, N, A, O, D, L, G
      5. M, N, G, D, O, L, A
      Ans : E
    2. In case L speaks after A, and A is the third of the first mates to speak, then among the following statements which would be untrue?
      1. O spoke immediately after G.
      2. The order of the first four speakers was M, G, N, D.
      3. O’s first mate was present.
      4. A was the fourth speaker after M.
      5. The captains spoke in the order M, N, O, L.
      Ans : D
    3. Among the following statements which statement must be true?
      1. In case the second speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
      2. In case the second speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
      3. In case the third speaker was a first mate, the seventh speaker was a captain.
      4. In case the third speaker was a captain, the seventh speaker was a first mate.
      5. In case the seventh speaker was a first mate, the first and third speakers were captains.
      Ans : A
    4. In case A spoke immediately after L and immediately before O, and O was not the last speaker, L spoke
      1. second
      2. third
      3. fourth
      4. fifth
      5. sixth
      Ans : C
    5. In case G is M’s first mate, D could be the person who spoke immediately
      1. prior to T
      2. prior to L
      3. prior to V
      4. after T
      5. after V
      Ans : D
    6. In case A is the third of the first mates to speak, and L is the captain whose first mate is not present, which among the following statements must be true?
      1. A spoke sometime before L.
      2. D spoke sometime before O.
      3. L spoke sometime before O.
      4. O spoke sometime before L.
      5. O spoke sometime before N.
      Ans : B
    7. Among the following statements, which would make M, D, N, G, L, O, A the only possible sequence of speakers?
      1. D is M’s first mate; G is N’s first mate; A is O’s first mate.
      2. D is M’s first mate; G is N’s first mate; A was the second to speak after L.
      3. The order of the first four speakers was M, D, N, G.
      4. The order of the last three speakers was L, O, A.
      5. The order in which the captains spoke was M, N, L, O.
      Ans : B
    Questions 42 - 45
    1. The microbe A causes the contagious disease A.
    2. The first symptoms appear after a period of two days since the microbe A enters the body.
    3. The microbe A is found in some flies and bees.
    4. A fly bit Jack on Monday, February 6.
    5. Nick worked with Jack the next day, Tuesday, February 7.
    There were no other possibilities of exposure to Disease A.
    1. In case Jack showed symptoms of Disease A, which of the following statements would be true?
      1. Jack contracted the Disease A from Nick.
      2. Jack first noticed symptoms of Disease A on February 8.
      3. The fly that Jack was bitten by was not a carrier of the microbe A.
      1. I only
      2. II only
      3. III only
      4. I and II only
      5. I and III only
      Ans : B
    2. In case Nick displayed symptoms of the disease A, which among the following would be true?
      1. I only
      2. II only
      3. III only
      4. II and III only
      5. I, II and III
      Ans : D
    3. In case Jack displayed symptoms of Disease A, which would be true?
      1. Jack was also bitten by a fly on February 5.
      2. Jack was bitten by a mosquito which carried the microbe A.
      3. Nick contracted Disease A from Jack.
      1. I only
      2. II only
      3. III only
      4. I and II only
      5. II and III only
      Ans : D
    4. In case Nick displayed the symptoms of Disease A which would be true?
      1. Nick was bitten by a bee on February 6.
      2. Nick ate food which contained the microbe A.
      3. Nick also worked with Jack on February 6.
      1. I only
      2. II only
      3. III only
      4. I and II only
      5. I, II and III
      Ans : A
    Questions 46 - 47
    The principal evil in today’s society is selfishness. Everywhere we see people, who are concerned only with themselves. Personal advancement is the only motivating force in the world today. This does not mean that individuals are not willing to help one another; on the contrary, _________. But, these are only short-term occurrences which ultimately serve our long-term goal of personal gain.
    1. To fill in the blank in the above passage, select one of the options from the below mentioned options:
      1. we are always trying to undermine othersâ€™ endeavors.
      2. my uncle Jeremy used to help me with my homework.
      3. no one can be trusted, not even close friends.
      4. our yearning for power prevents us from understanding our existential purpose.
      5. there are many occasions when we graciously offer our assistance.
      Ans : E
    2. Which among the following options would most strongly contradict the author’s attitude towards society?
      1. The greatest strength of society is altruism.
      2. The forces of good will ultimately triumph over evil.
      3. Our short-term actions may ostensibly contradict our long-term goals.
      4. We must all learn the art of selfishness.
      5. Morality is the bedrock of a growing community.
      Ans : A
  7. It can be proved by an example that our words are devoid of meaning as they cannot be distinguished from their opposites.People think that they are aware of the difference between the meanings of ‘bald‘ and ‘having hair’ Let us suppose that an average twenty-one year old has X strands of hair on his or her head. We say that such a person is not bald but has hair. But surely one hair less would make no difference, and a person with X - 1 hairs on his or her head would be said to have hair. Suppose we go on like this, decreasing one hair at a time, the result would be the same. Then what difference would there be between someone who has one hair and someone who has none? We call them both bald. Thus, we cannot make a distinction between the terms ‘bald’ and ‘having hair.’Among the following statements, which statement best counters the argument above?
    1. The word ‘bald’ can be translated into other languages.
    2. A word can have more than one meaning.
    3. A word such as ‘monkey’ can be applied to several animals that differ in some respects.
    4. Words can lack precision without being meaningless.
    5. People cannot think clearly without using words.
    Ans : D
  8. Virus M helps in controlling the population of gnats; they manage to do this by killing the moth’s larvae. Though the virus is always present in the larvae, it is only every six or seven years that the virus seriously decimates the numbers of larvae, greatly reducing the population of the gnats. Scientists are of the opinion that the gnats, usually latent, are activated only when the larvae experience biological stress.In case the above mentioned scientists are correct, it can be inferred that the decimation of gnat populations by the virus M could be most probably activated by the following conditions?
    1. A shift by the gnats from drought areas to a normal area occupied by them
    2. The resultant stress from defoliation of trees attacked by the gnats for the second consecutive year.
    3. Attacks on the larvae by all kinds by parasitic wasps and flies.
    4. Starvation of the gnat larvae due to over population.
    5. Spraying of gnat infested areas with laboratory - raised Virus M.
    Ans : D
  9. In a particular code, the digits from 0 to 9 inclusive are each represented by a different letter of the alphabet, the letter always representing the same digit. In case the following sumB O P B
    + S K B
    ——–
    C V B Q
    holds true when it is expressed in digits, which of the following cannot be properly inferred:
    1. B cannot be 0.
    2. B must be less than 5.
    3. Q must be even.
    4. O + S must be greater than 8.
    5. C must be greater than B by 1.
    Ans : B